HESI A2 Reading Comprehension Practice Test

Below is our free HESI A2 Reading Comprehension practice test. It features HESI Reading Comprehension practice questions that are designed to be very similar to those found on the actual exam. Make sure you read each passage very carefully before answering the questions. After choosing your answer, the correct answer is provided along with a detailed explanation. Just click on the arrow in the lower right corner in order to move on to the next question.

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Question 1
Questions 1-6 are based on this passage.

Food away from home (FAFH) has been associated with poor diet quality in many studies. It is difficult, however, to measure the effect of FAFH on diet quality since many unobserved factors, such as food preferences and time constraints, influence not just our choice of where to eat, but also the nutritional quality of what we eat.

Using data from 1994–96 and 2003–04, this study applies fixed-effects estimation to control for such unobservable influences and finds that, for the average adult, FAFH increases daily caloric intake and reduces diet quality. The effects vary depending on which meals are consumed away from home. On average, breakfast away from home decreases the number of servings of whole grains and dairy consumed per 1,000 calories and increases the percent of calories from saturated and solid fat, alcohol, and added sugar (SoFAAS) in a day. Dinner away from home reduces the number of servings of vegetables consumed per 1,000 calories for the average adult. Breakfast and lunch away from home increase calories from saturated fat and SoFAAS on average more among dieters than among non-dieters. Some of the overall negative dietary effects decreased between 1994–96 and 2003–04, including those on whole grain, sodium, and vegetable consumption.
 
Which meal(s) eaten away from home have worse results for dieters than for non-dieters?

A
The article doesn't state which meal is the worse for non-dieters.
B
Dinner eaten away from home is worse because people consume fewer whole grains and vegetables.
C
Breakfast eaten away from home is worse because it increases the percent of calories from saturated and solid fat, alcohol, and added sugar (SoFAAS) in a day.
D
Breakfast and lunch eaten away from home are worse because they increase the percent of calories from saturated fats.
Question 1 Explanation: 
The paragraph states that breakfast and lunch away from home increase calories from saturated fat more among dieters than for non-dieters.
Question 2
Questions 1-6 are based on this passage.

Food away from home (FAFH) has been associated with poor diet quality in many studies. It is difficult, however, to measure the effect of FAFH on diet quality since many unobserved factors, such as food preferences and time constraints, influence not just our choice of where to eat, but also the nutritional quality of what we eat.

Using data from 1994–96 and 2003–04, this study applies fixed-effects estimation to control for such unobservable influences and finds that, for the average adult, FAFH increases daily caloric intake and reduces diet quality. The effects vary depending on which meals are consumed away from home. On average, breakfast away from home decreases the number of servings of whole grains and dairy consumed per 1,000 calories and increases the percent of calories from saturated and solid fat, alcohol, and added sugar (SoFAAS) in a day. Dinner away from home reduces the number of servings of vegetables consumed per 1,000 calories for the average adult. Breakfast and lunch away from home increase calories from saturated fat and SoFAAS on average more among dieters than among non-dieters. Some of the overall negative dietary effects decreased between 1994–96 and 2003–04, including those on whole grain, sodium, and vegetable consumption.
 
Why is it difficult to measure the effect of food away from home on diet quality?

A
People eat out too much, so it is not possible to collect accurate data.
B
Researchers are unable to assess the nutritional quality of people's diets.
C
Peoples' food preferences are too complex and may even be unmeasurable.
D
Too many unknown variables affect the data.
Question 2 Explanation: 
To answer the question, look for clues in the second sentence in addition to the word "why." The answer lies in "many unobserved factors" and the more specific "such as food preferences and time constraints." The correct answer is supported by the following: "many unobserved factors, such as food preferences and time constraints, influence not just our choice of where to eat but also the nutritional quality of what we eat."
Question 3
Questions 1-6 are based on this passage.

Food away from home (FAFH) has been associated with poor diet quality in many studies. It is difficult, however, to measure the effect of FAFH on diet quality since many unobserved factors, such as food preferences and time constraints, influence not just our choice of where to eat, but also the nutritional quality of what we eat.

Using data from 1994–96 and 2003–04, this study applies fixed-effects estimation to control for such unobservable influences and finds that, for the average adult, FAFH increases daily caloric intake and reduces diet quality. The effects vary depending on which meals are consumed away from home. On average, breakfast away from home decreases the number of servings of whole grains and dairy consumed per 1,000 calories and increases the percent of calories from saturated and solid fat, alcohol, and added sugar (SoFAAS) in a day. Dinner away from home reduces the number of servings of vegetables consumed per 1,000 calories for the average adult. Breakfast and lunch away from home increase calories from saturated fat and SoFAAS on average more among dieters than among non-dieters. Some of the overall negative dietary effects decreased between 1994–96 and 2003–04, including those on whole grain, sodium, and vegetable consumption.
 
Which statement is not a detail from the passage?

A
Eating breakfast away from home can result in an increase in fatty protein consumption.
B
Eating food away from home is connected to bad food choices.
C
In general, people who eat breakfast away from home consume more calories.
D
Eating dinner away from home results in less vegetable consumption.
Question 3 Explanation: 
For this question, eliminate answer choices that ARE explicitly stated in the passage. The correct choice will be entirely out of scope. The passage does not mention an increase in fatty protein consumption anywhere and is therefore the answer.
Question 4
Questions 1-6 are based on this passage.

Food away from home (FAFH) has been associated with poor diet quality in many studies. It is difficult, however, to measure the effect of FAFH on diet quality since many unobserved factors, such as food preferences and time constraints, influence not just our choice of where to eat, but also the nutritional quality of what we eat.

Using data from 1994–96 and 2003–04, this study applies fixed-effects estimation to control for such unobservable influences and finds that, for the average adult, FAFH increases daily caloric intake and reduces diet quality. The effects vary depending on which meals are consumed away from home. On average, breakfast away from home decreases the number of servings of whole grains and dairy consumed per 1,000 calories and increases the percent of calories from saturated and solid fat, alcohol, and added sugar (SoFAAS) in a day. Dinner away from home reduces the number of servings of vegetables consumed per 1,000 calories for the average adult. Breakfast and lunch away from home increase calories from saturated fat and SoFAAS on average more among dieters than among non-dieters. Some of the overall negative dietary effects decreased between 1994–96 and 2003–04, including those on whole grain, sodium, and vegetable consumption.
 
What is the meaning of the word “associated” in the first paragraph?

A
Specialized
B
Predated
C
Connected
D
Obfuscated
Question 4 Explanation: 
In saying the two things are “associated,” the author intends to describe two ideas that are linked or intrinsically connected.
Question 5
Questions 1-6 are based on this passage.

Food away from home (FAFH) has been associated with poor diet quality in many studies. It is difficult, however, to measure the effect of FAFH on diet quality since many unobserved factors, such as food preferences and time constraints, influence not just our choice of where to eat, but also the nutritional quality of what we eat.

Using data from 1994–96 and 2003–04, this study applies fixed-effects estimation to control for such unobservable influences and finds that, for the average adult, FAFH increases daily caloric intake and reduces diet quality. The effects vary depending on which meals are consumed away from home. On average, breakfast away from home decreases the number of servings of whole grains and dairy consumed per 1,000 calories and increases the percent of calories from saturated and solid fat, alcohol, and added sugar (SoFAAS) in a day. Dinner away from home reduces the number of servings of vegetables consumed per 1,000 calories for the average adult. Breakfast and lunch away from home increase calories from saturated fat and SoFAAS on average more among dieters than among non-dieters. Some of the overall negative dietary effects decreased between 1994–96 and 2003–04, including those on whole grain, sodium, and vegetable consumption.
 
What is the main idea of the passage?

A
With so many factors going into a person's lifestyle, it is hard to definitively say that eating away from home leads to worse diet quality.
B
Eating meals away from home is correlated with fewer servings of vegetables, whole grains, and dairy.
C
Eating away from home appears to lead to a less balanced and healthy diet.
D
Eating meals away from home increases caloric intake, which, in turn, promotes weight gain.
Question 5 Explanation: 
The main idea is the overarching theme or topic that a passage focuses on. No details (servings of food groups, confounding factors, caloric intake) are included in the main idea.
Question 6
Questions 1-6 are based on this passage.

Food away from home (FAFH) has been associated with poor diet quality in many studies. It is difficult, however, to measure the effect of FAFH on diet quality since many unobserved factors, such as food preferences and time constraints, influence not just our choice of where to eat, but also the nutritional quality of what we eat.

Using data from 1994–96 and 2003–04, this study applies fixed-effects estimation to control for such unobservable influences and finds that, for the average adult, FAFH increases daily caloric intake and reduces diet quality. The effects vary depending on which meals are consumed away from home. On average, breakfast away from home decreases the number of servings of whole grains and dairy consumed per 1,000 calories and increases the percent of calories from saturated and solid fat, alcohol, and added sugar (SoFAAS) in a day. Dinner away from home reduces the number of servings of vegetables consumed per 1,000 calories for the average adult. Breakfast and lunch away from home increase calories from saturated fat and SoFAAS on average more among dieters than among non-dieters. Some of the overall negative dietary effects decreased between 1994–96 and 2003–04, including those on whole grain, sodium, and vegetable consumption.
 
What statement does the author imply?

A
Home-cooked meals often have a greater nutritional value than meals from restaurants.
B
Fast food places, like McDonald's, are less healthy than higher-end restaurants like a steakhouse.
C
The obesity epidemic in America is due to our obsession with eating out.
D
Dinner is the least healthy meal you can eat away from home.
Question 6 Explanation: 
The author focuses on the issues with eating away from home. Therefore, the only other option is eating AT home, meaning home-cooked meals have the higher nutritional value than the meals away from home that they are being compared to. There is no evidence for any of the other statements.
Question 7
Questions 7-12 are based on this passage.

A nanometer is a billionth of a meter. A DNA molecule is 2 nanometers in diameter. Protein molecules are about 10 nanometers in diameter. A human hair is 100,000 nanometers in diameter. But what is a nanometer and how does it relate to technology? Nanotechnology is defined as the understanding and control of matter at dimensions of roughly 1 to 100 nanometers, a scale at which unique properties of materials emerge that can be used to develop novel technologies and products. At the nanoscale, the physical, chemical, and biological properties of materials differ from the properties of matter either at smaller scales, such as atoms, or at larger scales that we use in everyday life such as millimeters or inches. Nanotechnology involves imaging, measuring, modeling, and manipulating matter only a few nanometers in size. Gold nanoparticles are made of the same material as in jewelry. But when light interacts with particles of gold, different colors are reflected. The different colors can be used in simple medical tests to indicate infection or disease. Metals such as copper become extremely rigid at the nanoscale, rather than bendable as in copper wires seen in everyday use.
 
What is the major difference between matter at the nanoscale and matter at larger scales such as millimeters or inches?

A
At the nanoscale, metals are bendable, and at larger scales they are rigid.
B
Matter has different and special characteristics at the nanoscale.
C
At the nanoscale, matter has the same properties as matter at the atomic level.
D
There is no difference.
Question 7 Explanation: 
Nanotechnology is the science of studying very small pieces of matter. A nanometer is bigger than an atom, but smaller than a millimeter. The author explains that matter at the nanoscale and matter at larger scales both have different and special characteristics: "At the nanoscale, the physical, chemical, and biological properties of materials differ from the properties of matter either at smaller scales, such as atoms, or at larger scales that we use in everyday life such as millimeters or inches."
Question 8
Questions 7-12 are based on this passage.

A nanometer is a billionth of a meter. A DNA molecule is 2 nanometers in diameter. Protein molecules are about 10 nanometers in diameter. A human hair is 100,000 nanometers in diameter. But what is a nanometer and how does it relate to technology? Nanotechnology is defined as the understanding and control of matter at dimensions of roughly 1 to 100 nanometers, a scale at which unique properties of materials emerge that can be used to develop novel technologies and products. At the nanoscale, the physical, chemical, and biological properties of materials differ from the properties of matter either at smaller scales, such as atoms, or at larger scales that we use in everyday life such as millimeters or inches. Nanotechnology involves imaging, measuring, modeling, and manipulating matter only a few nanometers in size. Gold nanoparticles are made of the same material as in jewelry. But when light interacts with particles of gold, different colors are reflected. The different colors can be used in simple medical tests to indicate infection or disease. Metals such as copper become extremely rigid at the nanoscale, rather than bendable as in copper wires seen in everyday use.
 
Which claim from the passage best describes the benefits of nanotechnology?

A
Scientists can develop novel technologies and products.
B
Nanotechnology is defined as the understanding and control of matter at dimensions of roughly 1 to 100 nanometers.
C
The different colors can be used in simple medical tests to indicate infection or disease.
D
Unique properties of materials emerge.
Question 8 Explanation: 
Nanotechnology is the science of studying very small particles of matter. The author states that it is a new field that may help scientists develop new technologies and products that will be helpful in industry and medicine as a result of the different ways that matter behaves at the nanoscale.
Question 9
Questions 7-12 are based on this passage.

A nanometer is a billionth of a meter. A DNA molecule is 2 nanometers in diameter. Protein molecules are about 10 nanometers in diameter. A human hair is 100,000 nanometers in diameter. But what is a nanometer and how does it relate to technology? Nanotechnology is defined as the understanding and control of matter at dimensions of roughly 1 to 100 nanometers, a scale at which unique properties of materials emerge that can be used to develop novel technologies and products. At the nanoscale, the physical, chemical, and biological properties of materials differ from the properties of matter either at smaller scales, such as atoms, or at larger scales that we use in everyday life such as millimeters or inches. Nanotechnology involves imaging, measuring, modeling, and manipulating matter only a few nanometers in size. Gold nanoparticles are made of the same material as in jewelry. But when light interacts with particles of gold, different colors are reflected. The different colors can be used in simple medical tests to indicate infection or disease. Metals such as copper become extremely rigid at the nanoscale, rather than bendable as in copper wires seen in everyday use.
 
What is the author’s primary purpose in writing this essay?

A
To explain how to utilize the nanoscale
B
To review the conversion between the nanoscale and nanotechnology
C
To advocate for the usage of more nanotechnology
D
To describe what nanotechnology is
Question 9 Explanation: 
The overall tone of the passage is informational and fairly dry. The topic is nanotechnology and the paragraph explains in some detail what it is and what its value is.
Question 10
Questions 7-12 are based on this passage.

A nanometer is a billionth of a meter. A DNA molecule is 2 nanometers in diameter. Protein molecules are about 10 nanometers in diameter. A human hair is 100,000 nanometers in diameter. But what is a nanometer and how does it relate to technology? Nanotechnology is defined as the understanding and control of matter at dimensions of roughly 1 to 100 nanometers, a scale at which unique properties of materials emerge that can be used to develop novel technologies and products. At the nanoscale, the physical, chemical, and biological properties of materials differ from the properties of matter either at smaller scales, such as atoms, or at larger scales that we use in everyday life such as millimeters or inches. Nanotechnology involves imaging, measuring, modeling, and manipulating matter only a few nanometers in size. Gold nanoparticles are made of the same material as in jewelry. But when light interacts with particles of gold, different colors are reflected. The different colors can be used in simple medical tests to indicate infection or disease. Metals such as copper become extremely rigid at the nanoscale, rather than bendable as in copper wires seen in everyday use.
 
Which of the following statements is not a detail from the passage?

A
Nanotechnology is unique because small scale materials have different properties than at other sizes.
B
The rigidity of nanoscale copper is useful for medical testing and equipment.
C
Protein molecules are larger than DNA molecules.
D
At the nanoscale, gold reflects different colors than at visible scales like millimeters or centimeters.
Question 10 Explanation: 
The article does mention that copper at the nanoscale is more rigid, but it only specifies that gold, not copper, is useful for medical tests. The other statements are true (the article states the sizes of protein molecules and DNA molecules in nanometers, showing that the former is larger than the latter).
Question 11
Questions 7-12 are based on this passage.

A nanometer is a billionth of a meter. A DNA molecule is 2 nanometers in diameter. Protein molecules are about 10 nanometers in diameter. A human hair is 100,000 nanometers in diameter. But what is a nanometer and how does it relate to technology? Nanotechnology is defined as the understanding and control of matter at dimensions of roughly 1 to 100 nanometers, a scale at which unique properties of materials emerge that can be used to develop novel technologies and products. At the nanoscale, the physical, chemical, and biological properties of materials differ from the properties of matter either at smaller scales, such as atoms, or at larger scales that we use in everyday life such as millimeters or inches. Nanotechnology involves imaging, measuring, modeling, and manipulating matter only a few nanometers in size. Gold nanoparticles are made of the same material as in jewelry. But when light interacts with particles of gold, different colors are reflected. The different colors can be used in simple medical tests to indicate infection or disease. Metals such as copper become extremely rigid at the nanoscale, rather than bendable as in copper wires seen in everyday use.
 
What is the meaning of the word properties in the passage?

A
Physical spaces
B
Types
C
Abilities
D
Qualities or attributes
Question 11 Explanation: 
A property is a quality, trait, or attribute that something possesses. The word has other meanings, but this is how it is being used here.
Question 12
Questions 7-12 are based on this passage.

A nanometer is a billionth of a meter. A DNA molecule is 2 nanometers in diameter. Protein molecules are about 10 nanometers in diameter. A human hair is 100,000 nanometers in diameter. But what is a nanometer and how does it relate to technology? Nanotechnology is defined as the understanding and control of matter at dimensions of roughly 1 to 100 nanometers, a scale at which unique properties of materials emerge that can be used to develop novel technologies and products. At the nanoscale, the physical, chemical, and biological properties of materials differ from the properties of matter either at smaller scales, such as atoms, or at larger scales that we use in everyday life such as millimeters or inches. Nanotechnology involves imaging, measuring, modeling, and manipulating matter only a few nanometers in size. Gold nanoparticles are made of the same material as in jewelry. But when light interacts with particles of gold, different colors are reflected. The different colors can be used in simple medical tests to indicate infection or disease. Metals such as copper become extremely rigid at the nanoscale, rather than bendable as in copper wires seen in everyday use.
 
What statement is supported by the passage?

A
All materials will look and behave differently at the nanoscale, so they can all be used for technological and medical advancement.
B
Precious metals are more valuable at the nanoscale.
C
Nanotechnology has the potential to save lives through certain applications.
D
Nanotechnology can be used in practically every industry.
Question 12 Explanation: 
The correct answer is only statement directly supported by the passage, as the paragraph mentions the technology's application in finding infections and diseases.
Question 13
Questions 13-18 are based on this passage.

Personal protective equipment, or PPE, is used in many fields, but often connected most immediately to the healthcare industry. Medical patients see doctors and nurses donned in gloves, scrubs, gowns, masks, and even glasses or face shields. This practice was not always in effect, however; it took centuries for scientific knowledge to recognize the importance of PPE and implement it across the world.

One of the most iconic examples of early PPE is that of the plague doctor—which, coincidentally, also demonstrates the extreme lack of knowledge humans had on diseases at the time. During the 17th century bubonic plague, doctors could be seen wearing long coats, leather gloves, and ominous-looking beaked masks. This eccentric outfit was to protect the medical professionals from “miasma.” Doctors believed that the plague (and other ailments) were spread through poisoned air; the beaked mask, stuffed with dozens of herbs and perfumes, was meant to purify the air before the physician can breathe it in. The long, curved beak supposedly gave the air enough time to be suffused by the aromatic fumes. This, of course, did nothing to protect the plague doctors.

It took hundreds of years for modern protective equipment to start to take shape. The first rubber surgical gloves were made in 1893 by Goodyear (the tire company), and the first surgical masks were worn in 1897 to keep doctors from coughing or sneezing on patients undergoing surgery. In fact, surgical masks are still for this purpose—not to prevent airborne diseases from being breathed in. A plague in 1910 brought on the development of a mask designed to protect the wearer, which was very important for the dawn of the Spanish flu in 1918. Today, the N-95 masks doctors wear are direct descendants from this early respirator.

Despite their existence, it took a few years for protective wear to catch on. Masks weren’t common until after 1920 following a bit of public mockery of them in previous decades. A study examining a century of surgery photographs discovered that it wasn’t until after 1950 that every person in the operating room wore full medical gear—gloves, masks, scrubs, and caps. Thankfully, PPE is the industry standard now, all the better for both patients and practitioners.
 
Which of the following is the best summary of the passage?

A
It took many decades of scientific advancement and evolving perspectives in medicine for healthcare providers to have the personal protective equipment we know today.
B
The plague doctor uniform is an early example of PPE, even though it was based on a misunderstanding of how disease spread. It wasn’t until the 1950s that full, appropriate medical gear was worn.
C
The first surgical gloves were made in 1893 by Goodyear. The first surgical masks came four years later. Unfortunately, these revolutionary inventions weren’t taken seriously until decades later, which may have cost many their lives.
D
PPE is a vital part of the healthcare industry. It is designed to protect both the wearer and the patient. Surgical masks are meant to keep surgeons from coughing or sneezing on a patient, while N-95 respirators and their early predecessors are meant to prevent airborne diseases from being breathed in.
Question 13 Explanation: 
A summary is a brief statement that brings together the main idea(s) of the passage as a whole. All of the other answers focus on details throughout the passage and miss key concepts that form the basis of the text.
Question 14
Questions 13-18 are based on this passage.

Personal protective equipment, or PPE, is used in many fields, but often connected most immediately to the healthcare industry. Medical patients see doctors and nurses donned in gloves, scrubs, gowns, masks, and even glasses or face shields. This practice was not always in effect, however; it took centuries for scientific knowledge to recognize the importance of PPE and implement it across the world.

One of the most iconic examples of early PPE is that of the plague doctor—which, coincidentally, also demonstrates the extreme lack of knowledge humans had on diseases at the time. During the 17th century bubonic plague, doctors could be seen wearing long coats, leather gloves, and ominous-looking beaked masks. This eccentric outfit was to protect the medical professionals from “miasma.” Doctors believed that the plague (and other ailments) were spread through poisoned air; the beaked mask, stuffed with dozens of herbs and perfumes, was meant to purify the air before the physician can breathe it in. The long, curved beak supposedly gave the air enough time to be suffused by the aromatic fumes. This, of course, did nothing to protect the plague doctors.

It took hundreds of years for modern protective equipment to start to take shape. The first rubber surgical gloves were made in 1893 by Goodyear (the tire company), and the first surgical masks were worn in 1897 to keep doctors from coughing or sneezing on patients undergoing surgery. In fact, surgical masks are still for this purpose—not to prevent airborne diseases from being breathed in. A plague in 1910 brought on the development of a mask designed to protect the wearer, which was very important for the dawn of the Spanish flu in 1918. Today, the N-95 masks doctors wear are direct descendants from this early respirator.

Despite their existence, it took a few years for protective wear to catch on. Masks weren’t common until after 1920 following a bit of public mockery of them in previous decades. A study examining a century of surgery photographs discovered that it wasn’t until after 1950 that every person in the operating room wore full medical gear—gloves, masks, scrubs, and caps. Thankfully, PPE is the industry standard now, all the better for both patients and practitioners.
 
Which detail is not included in the passage?

A
Masks were not universally worn by medical staff before 1920.
B
The beak of a plague doctor mask was full of perfumes meant to purify the air that the doctor would breathe.
C
Scrubs helped protect doctors from the Spanish flu.
D
N-95 masks protect health professionals from any particles they might have breathed in.
Question 14 Explanation: 
The passage states that masks, not scrubs, helped protect healthcare workers amidst the Spanish flu. All of the other statements are referenced in the text.
Question 15
Questions 13-18 are based on this passage.

Personal protective equipment, or PPE, is used in many fields, but often connected most immediately to the healthcare industry. Medical patients see doctors and nurses donned in gloves, scrubs, gowns, masks, and even glasses or face shields. This practice was not always in effect, however; it took centuries for scientific knowledge to recognize the importance of PPE and implement it across the world.

One of the most iconic examples of early PPE is that of the plague doctor—which, coincidentally, also demonstrates the extreme lack of knowledge humans had on diseases at the time. During the 17th century bubonic plague, doctors could be seen wearing long coats, leather gloves, and ominous-looking beaked masks. This eccentric outfit was to protect the medical professionals from “miasma.” Doctors believed that the plague (and other ailments) were spread through poisoned air; the beaked mask, stuffed with dozens of herbs and perfumes, was meant to purify the air before the physician can breathe it in. The long, curved beak supposedly gave the air enough time to be suffused by the aromatic fumes. This, of course, did nothing to protect the plague doctors.

It took hundreds of years for modern protective equipment to start to take shape. The first rubber surgical gloves were made in 1893 by Goodyear (the tire company), and the first surgical masks were worn in 1897 to keep doctors from coughing or sneezing on patients undergoing surgery. In fact, surgical masks are still for this purpose—not to prevent airborne diseases from being breathed in. A plague in 1910 brought on the development of a mask designed to protect the wearer, which was very important for the dawn of the Spanish flu in 1918. Today, the N-95 masks doctors wear are direct descendants from this early respirator.

Despite their existence, it took a few years for protective wear to catch on. Masks weren’t common until after 1920 following a bit of public mockery of them in previous decades. A study examining a century of surgery photographs discovered that it wasn’t until after 1950 that every person in the operating room wore full medical gear—gloves, masks, scrubs, and caps. Thankfully, PPE is the industry standard now, all the better for both patients and practitioners.
 
What is the meaning of "eccentric" in the second paragraph?

A
Traditional
B
Familiar
C
Outlandish
D
Vital
Question 15 Explanation: 
Something is eccentric if it appears outlandish or bizarre.
Question 16
Questions 13-18 are based on this passage.

Personal protective equipment, or PPE, is used in many fields, but often connected most immediately to the healthcare industry. Medical patients see doctors and nurses donned in gloves, scrubs, gowns, masks, and even glasses or face shields. This practice was not always in effect, however; it took centuries for scientific knowledge to recognize the importance of PPE and implement it across the world.

One of the most iconic examples of early PPE is that of the plague doctor—which, coincidentally, also demonstrates the extreme lack of knowledge humans had on diseases at the time. During the 17th century bubonic plague, doctors could be seen wearing long coats, leather gloves, and ominous-looking beaked masks. This eccentric outfit was to protect the medical professionals from “miasma.” Doctors believed that the plague (and other ailments) were spread through poisoned air; the beaked mask, stuffed with dozens of herbs and perfumes, was meant to purify the air before the physician can breathe it in. The long, curved beak supposedly gave the air enough time to be suffused by the aromatic fumes. This, of course, did nothing to protect the plague doctors.

It took hundreds of years for modern protective equipment to start to take shape. The first rubber surgical gloves were made in 1893 by Goodyear (the tire company), and the first surgical masks were worn in 1897 to keep doctors from coughing or sneezing on patients undergoing surgery. In fact, surgical masks are still for this purpose—not to prevent airborne diseases from being breathed in. A plague in 1910 brought on the development of a mask designed to protect the wearer, which was very important for the dawn of the Spanish flu in 1918. Today, the N-95 masks doctors wear are direct descendants from this early respirator.

Despite their existence, it took a few years for protective wear to catch on. Masks weren’t common until after 1920 following a bit of public mockery of them in previous decades. A study examining a century of surgery photographs discovered that it wasn’t until after 1950 that every person in the operating room wore full medical gear—gloves, masks, scrubs, and caps. Thankfully, PPE is the industry standard now, all the better for both patients and practitioners.
 
When was the first mask designed to protect patients created?

A
1893
B
1897
C
1910
D
1920
Question 16 Explanation: 
the key word in the question is "patients." The passage states that a mask was designed in 1897 "to keep doctors from coughing or sneezing on patients undergoing surgery."
Question 17
Questions 13-18 are based on this passage.

Personal protective equipment, or PPE, is used in many fields, but often connected most immediately to the healthcare industry. Medical patients see doctors and nurses donned in gloves, scrubs, gowns, masks, and even glasses or face shields. This practice was not always in effect, however; it took centuries for scientific knowledge to recognize the importance of PPE and implement it across the world.

One of the most iconic examples of early PPE is that of the plague doctor—which, coincidentally, also demonstrates the extreme lack of knowledge humans had on diseases at the time. During the 17th century bubonic plague, doctors could be seen wearing long coats, leather gloves, and ominous-looking beaked masks. This eccentric outfit was to protect the medical professionals from “miasma.” Doctors believed that the plague (and other ailments) were spread through poisoned air; the beaked mask, stuffed with dozens of herbs and perfumes, was meant to purify the air before the physician can breathe it in. The long, curved beak supposedly gave the air enough time to be suffused by the aromatic fumes. This, of course, did nothing to protect the plague doctors.

It took hundreds of years for modern protective equipment to start to take shape. The first rubber surgical gloves were made in 1893 by Goodyear (the tire company), and the first surgical masks were worn in 1897 to keep doctors from coughing or sneezing on patients undergoing surgery. In fact, surgical masks are still for this purpose—not to prevent airborne diseases from being breathed in. A plague in 1910 brought on the development of a mask designed to protect the wearer, which was very important for the dawn of the Spanish flu in 1918. Today, the N-95 masks doctors wear are direct descendants from this early respirator.

Despite their existence, it took a few years for protective wear to catch on. Masks weren’t common until after 1920 following a bit of public mockery of them in previous decades. A study examining a century of surgery photographs discovered that it wasn’t until after 1950 that every person in the operating room wore full medical gear—gloves, masks, scrubs, and caps. Thankfully, PPE is the industry standard now, all the better for both patients and practitioners.
 
Which of the following is implied?

A
Plague doctors knew that their beaked masks and leather gloves wouldn’t protect them, but there was nothing they could do.
B
Health professionals today only wear PPE because they have to.
C
The Spanish flu caused as much panic and devastation as the bubonic plague.
D
There was skepticism in the early 20th century medical community of the supposed effectiveness of PPE.
Question 17 Explanation: 
The last paragraph mentions that PPE took a while "to catch on" and received some "public mockery" in the decades preceding the year 1920, which would be the first two decades of the 20th century. There is no indication that plague doctors were aware their uniforms didn't work; in fact, the passage explains their reasoning behind wearing it. There is also no mention of the opinions or motivations of healthcare workers now, nor the amount of panic experienced during any epidemic.
Question 18
Questions 13-18 are based on this passage.

Personal protective equipment, or PPE, is used in many fields, but often connected most immediately to the healthcare industry. Medical patients see doctors and nurses donned in gloves, scrubs, gowns, masks, and even glasses or face shields. This practice was not always in effect, however; it took centuries for scientific knowledge to recognize the importance of PPE and implement it across the world.

One of the most iconic examples of early PPE is that of the plague doctor—which, coincidentally, also demonstrates the extreme lack of knowledge humans had on diseases at the time. During the 17th century bubonic plague, doctors could be seen wearing long coats, leather gloves, and ominous-looking beaked masks. This eccentric outfit was to protect the medical professionals from “miasma.” Doctors believed that the plague (and other ailments) were spread through poisoned air; the beaked mask, stuffed with dozens of herbs and perfumes, was meant to purify the air before the physician can breathe it in. The long, curved beak supposedly gave the air enough time to be suffused by the aromatic fumes. This, of course, did nothing to protect the plague doctors.

It took hundreds of years for modern protective equipment to start to take shape. The first rubber surgical gloves were made in 1893 by Goodyear (the tire company), and the first surgical masks were worn in 1897 to keep doctors from coughing or sneezing on patients undergoing surgery. In fact, surgical masks are still for this purpose—not to prevent airborne diseases from being breathed in. A plague in 1910 brought on the development of a mask designed to protect the wearer, which was very important for the dawn of the Spanish flu in 1918. Today, the N-95 masks doctors wear are direct descendants from this early respirator.

Despite their existence, it took a few years for protective wear to catch on. Masks weren’t common until after 1920 following a bit of public mockery of them in previous decades. A study examining a century of surgery photographs discovered that it wasn’t until after 1950 that every person in the operating room wore full medical gear—gloves, masks, scrubs, and caps. Thankfully, PPE is the industry standard now, all the better for both patients and practitioners.
 
What is the author’s purpose?

A
To entertain readers of the improper origins of PPE
B
To inform readers of how the PPE we use today came about
C
To persuade readers to protect themselves by wearing PPE
D
To inform readers of how the plague doctor was responsible for the development of masks we wear today
Question 18 Explanation: 
The passage is informational; it does not try to tell readers to wear PPE, nor is it for entertainment about the origins of PPE, since it gives a general overview of its development throughout history. There is no evidence given that the plague doctor masks directly led to modern masks, and the passage focuses more broadly on all forms of protective wear.
Question 19
Questions 19-25 are based on this passage.

Neurologists and biological psychologists have witnessed a sharp increase in the knowledge and understanding of particular structures of the brain over the past two decades. As technology becomes ever more advanced, scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain. One noteworthy discovery is the role of the amygdala in human fear and aggression. The amygdala, a small, almond-shaped conglomerate, is just one part of the limbic system. Located at the very center of the brain, the limbic system is the core of our 'emotional brain;' each individual structure in the limbic system is somehow connected to an aspect of human emotion.

Scientists have found that electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme and aggressive acts. Patients or experimental subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction. In other words, this aggression is wholly attributable to electrode stimulation. On the other hand, patients with trauma or damage to this structure exhibit a complete absence of aggression. Researchers find that no amount of poking, prodding or harassment will evoke even remotely aggressive responses from these subjects.
 
The author suggests that persistent passivity and imperturbability may be a direct result of which of the following?

A
Drug-induced stimulation of the amygdala.
B
A stroke that resulted in severe tissue damage in the limbic system.
C
Encephalitis as a result of head trauma.
D
Activation of a strategically implanted electrode in a patient’s amygdala.
Question 19 Explanation: 
The author states that "patients with trauma or damage to this structure [the amygdala] exhibit a complete absence of aggression." Earlier in the passage the author indicates that the amygdala is located centrally in the brain's limbic system, which is responsible for emotional regulation.
Question 20
Questions 19-25 are based on this passage.

Neurologists and biological psychologists have witnessed a sharp increase in the knowledge and understanding of particular structures of the brain over the past two decades. As technology becomes ever more advanced, scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain. One noteworthy discovery is the role of the amygdala in human fear and aggression. The amygdala, a small, almond-shaped conglomerate, is just one part of the limbic system. Located at the very center of the brain, the limbic system is the core of our 'emotional brain;' each individual structure in the limbic system is somehow connected to an aspect of human emotion.

Scientists have found that electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme and aggressive acts. Patients or experimental subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction. In other words, this aggression is wholly attributable to electrode stimulation. On the other hand, patients with trauma or damage to this structure exhibit a complete absence of aggression. Researchers find that no amount of poking, prodding or harassment will evoke even remotely aggressive responses from these subjects.
 
Which statement is not listed as a detail within the passage?

A
Electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme aggressive acts.
B
Scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain.
C
Typically temperamental rhesus monkeys with amygdala damage are completely imperturbable.
D
Subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction.
Question 20 Explanation: 
The other statements are directly lifted from the passage. This answer is not part of the passage.
Question 21
Questions 19-25 are based on this passage.

Neurologists and biological psychologists have witnessed a sharp increase in the knowledge and understanding of particular structures of the brain over the past two decades. As technology becomes ever more advanced, scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain. One noteworthy discovery is the role of the amygdala in human fear and aggression. The amygdala, a small, almond-shaped conglomerate, is just one part of the limbic system. Located at the very center of the brain, the limbic system is the core of our 'emotional brain;' each individual structure in the limbic system is somehow connected to an aspect of human emotion.

Scientists have found that electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme and aggressive acts. Patients or experimental subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction. In other words, this aggression is wholly attributable to electrode stimulation. On the other hand, patients with trauma or damage to this structure exhibit a complete absence of aggression. Researchers find that no amount of poking, prodding or harassment will evoke even remotely aggressive responses from these subjects.
 
What is the main idea of the passage?

A
The human brain is as complex as it is mysterious.
B
Patients with damaged amygdalas are less aggressive than individuals with healthy ones.
C
Electrode stimulation is a valuable tool for researchers who study the human brain.
D
Scientists have learned a lot about how the amygdala affects human emotion.
Question 21 Explanation: 
The passage is focused on the amygdala and how scientists have studied its relationship with emotions such as fear and aggression. The other answer choices are too specific or too broad. The correct main idea will always match the scope of the passage.
Question 22
Questions 19-25 are based on this passage.

Neurologists and biological psychologists have witnessed a sharp increase in the knowledge and understanding of particular structures of the brain over the past two decades. As technology becomes ever more advanced, scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain. One noteworthy discovery is the role of the amygdala in human fear and aggression. The amygdala, a small, almond-shaped conglomerate, is just one part of the limbic system. Located at the very center of the brain, the limbic system is the core of our 'emotional brain;' each individual structure in the limbic system is somehow connected to an aspect of human emotion.

Scientists have found that electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme and aggressive acts. Patients or experimental subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction. In other words, this aggression is wholly attributable to electrode stimulation. On the other hand, patients with trauma or damage to this structure exhibit a complete absence of aggression. Researchers find that no amount of poking, prodding or harassment will evoke even remotely aggressive responses from these subjects.
 
What is the meaning of the word "conglomerate"?

A
Body part
B
Organ
C
Substance
D
Composite mass
Question 22 Explanation: 
The passage explains that the amygdala is part of the brain. The word "conglomerate" means an object that is made up of multiple parts or substances to create a whole, composite mass. Words like "body part," "organ," and "substance" are too general.
Question 23
Questions 19-25 are based on this passage.

Neurologists and biological psychologists have witnessed a sharp increase in the knowledge and understanding of particular structures of the brain over the past two decades. As technology becomes ever more advanced, scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain. One noteworthy discovery is the role of the amygdala in human fear and aggression. The amygdala, a small, almond-shaped conglomerate, is just one part of the limbic system. Located at the very center of the brain, the limbic system is the core of our 'emotional brain;' each individual structure in the limbic system is somehow connected to an aspect of human emotion.

Scientists have found that electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme and aggressive acts. Patients or experimental subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction. In other words, this aggression is wholly attributable to electrode stimulation. On the other hand, patients with trauma or damage to this structure exhibit a complete absence of aggression. Researchers find that no amount of poking, prodding or harassment will evoke even remotely aggressive responses from these subjects.
 
What can the reader conclude from the research on amygdala stimulation?

A
Damaging the amygdala erases a person's ability to feel emotion.
B
Stimulating the amygdala can cause emotional responses that have nothing to do with a person's situation or environment.
C
The amygdala is responsible for rational action and thinking.
D
Removing the amygdala will likely cause violence and extreme aggression in an individual.
Question 23 Explanation: 
The passage states that scientists have used electrodes to stimulate the amygdala, which caused "utter rage and fearlessness" that had "no rational foundation." There is no evidence that a damaged amygdala will stop someone from feeling all emotion; the passage only mentions a lack of aggression. There is no discussion of whether the amygdala can be removed and what would happen if it was done.
Question 24
Questions 19-25 are based on this passage.

Neurologists and biological psychologists have witnessed a sharp increase in the knowledge and understanding of particular structures of the brain over the past two decades. As technology becomes ever more advanced, scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain. One noteworthy discovery is the role of the amygdala in human fear and aggression. The amygdala, a small, almond-shaped conglomerate, is just one part of the limbic system. Located at the very center of the brain, the limbic system is the core of our 'emotional brain;' each individual structure in the limbic system is somehow connected to an aspect of human emotion.

Scientists have found that electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme and aggressive acts. Patients or experimental subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction. In other words, this aggression is wholly attributable to electrode stimulation. On the other hand, patients with trauma or damage to this structure exhibit a complete absence of aggression. Researchers find that no amount of poking, prodding or harassment will evoke even remotely aggressive responses from these subjects.
 
Which of the following is the best summary of the passage?

A
Experiments have used electrodes to stimulate the amygdala and show its connection to our emotions, especially aggression. Stimulation can provide unprompted emotional reactions.
B
The limbic system is responsible for the range of human emotions. The amygdala is just a small, almond-shape part of this system, and, through experimentation and case studies, has been proven to be connected to anger and aggression.
C
Scientists have learned a lot about the role of the amygdala within the limbic system.
D
The amygdala, a small section of the brain, has been studied and explored by researchers to show its connection to emotion. Amygdala stimulation can prompt unwarranted anger and rage, while damage to the amygdala may cause a complete lack of aggression in a person.
Question 24 Explanation: 
The best summary is the one that brings together all the main points and ideas within the passage while leaving out specific details. The correct answer is neither too short to where it leaves out large chunks of information, nor too long to where it adds details.
Question 25
Questions 19-25 are based on this passage.

Neurologists and biological psychologists have witnessed a sharp increase in the knowledge and understanding of particular structures of the brain over the past two decades. As technology becomes ever more advanced, scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain. One noteworthy discovery is the role of the amygdala in human fear and aggression. The amygdala, a small, almond-shaped conglomerate, is just one part of the limbic system. Located at the very center of the brain, the limbic system is the core of our 'emotional brain;' each individual structure in the limbic system is somehow connected to an aspect of human emotion.

Scientists have found that electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme and aggressive acts. Patients or experimental subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction. In other words, this aggression is wholly attributable to electrode stimulation. On the other hand, patients with trauma or damage to this structure exhibit a complete absence of aggression. Researchers find that no amount of poking, prodding or harassment will evoke even remotely aggressive responses from these subjects.
 
What statement is implied by the passage?

A
The role of the amygdala is just one of the discoveries that has localized brain function.
B
Car crashes are a common way that people damage their amygdala, due to how often brain trauma results from them.
C
Nothing we feel is of our own control or a reaction to our environment; it is all determined by random stimulations of the limbic system.
D
Men and women who are more aggressive likely have a larger amygdala.
Question 25 Explanation: 
The first two sentences imply that there have been many advancements in our understanding of the brain, even in small regions. The other statements have no evidence in the passage.
Question 26
Questions 26-31 are based on this passage.

The ability to see at a distance, in good light, does not diminish as a result of aging to the extent that other visual acuities do. Myopia, or nearsightedness, is more common to younger eyes, while presbyopia, or farsightedness, more commonly afflicts people as they age. The word presbyopia comes from Greek presbys, "old man," and opia, "eye," and names a condition in which, because the lens of the eye hardens slightly and loses elasticity as a person ages, one cannot as easily focus sharply on nearby objects. This condition leads to the familiar habit of lifting up one's glasses and bringing an object or reading material close to the face so that the eyes can more easily focus on it. The function of the lens is to accommodate different focal points so that sensory data can be correctly directed to the retina for interpretation into images by the brain. Corrective lenses, particularly bifocals or progressive lenses, adjust for the focal point aberration. In essence, they do the work that the eye can no longer do for itself.
 
In the context of the passage, “accommodate” means to

A
Arrange lodging for
B
Contain
C
Make allowances for
D
Excuse
Question 26 Explanation: 
For vocabulary-in-context questions, always find the word in the passage to see what it means in context; it may have multiple definitions, but only one is being used. Here, we are looking for a word or phrase that means something like “facilitate the proper viewing of” the different focal points. “Make allowances for” means “adjust for” or “compensate for,” which is what lenses—either those in the eye or those in eyeglasses—must do. "Arrange lodging for," meaning “house” or “put up,” is another meaning of “accommodate” but does not apply in this context, so it is incorrect. "Excuse," meaning “remove blame from” or “disregard,” does not apply in this context either.
Question 27
Questions 26-31 are based on this passage.

The ability to see at a distance, in good light, does not diminish as a result of aging to the extent that other visual acuities do. Myopia, or nearsightedness, is more common to younger eyes, while presbyopia, or farsightedness, more commonly afflicts people as they age. The word presbyopia comes from Greek presbys, "old man," and opia, "eye," and names a condition in which, because the lens of the eye hardens slightly and loses elasticity as a person ages, one cannot as easily focus sharply on nearby objects. This condition leads to the familiar habit of lifting up one's glasses and bringing an object or reading material close to the face so that the eyes can more easily focus on it. The function of the lens is to accommodate different focal points so that sensory data can be correctly directed to the retina for interpretation into images by the brain. Corrective lenses, particularly bifocals or progressive lenses, adjust for the focal point aberration. In essence, they do the work that the eye can no longer do for itself.
 
Which of the following metaphors best represents the relationship between corrective lenses and aging eyes?

A
A dancer with a broken bone needs a cast to protect it.
B
A hiker reinforces a fraying backpack strap with duct tape.
C
A traveler gets a passport before going abroad.
D
An athlete stretches before a game to avoid a potential injury.
Question 27 Explanation: 
To answer this question, we must go back to the passage to see what it says about how corrective lenses aid the eye. The last sentence of the passage states that the corrective lenses "do the work that the eye can no longer do for itself." We need to find a similar relationship— something doing work that can no longer be done by something else. The correct answer describes such a relationship. The damaged strap can no longer fulfill its task; the duct tape bolsters the strap so it can do the task instead. The frayed strap cannot repair itself, so the situation is not temporary (like a broken bone).
Question 28
Questions 26-31 are based on this passage.

The ability to see at a distance, in good light, does not diminish as a result of aging to the extent that other visual acuities do. Myopia, or nearsightedness, is more common to younger eyes, while presbyopia, or farsightedness, more commonly afflicts people as they age. The word presbyopia comes from Greek presbys, "old man," and opia, "eye," and names a condition in which, because the lens of the eye hardens slightly and loses elasticity as a person ages, one cannot as easily focus sharply on nearby objects. This condition leads to the familiar habit of lifting up one's glasses and bringing an object or reading material close to the face so that the eyes can more easily focus on it. The function of the lens is to accommodate different focal points so that sensory data can be correctly directed to the retina for interpretation into images by the brain. Corrective lenses, particularly bifocals or progressive lenses, adjust for the focal point aberration. In essence, they do the work that the eye can no longer do for itself.
 
What was the author’s primary purpose for writing this essay?

A
To define what presbyopia is
B
To describe how eyes age and the function of corrective lenses
C
To compare and contrast nearsightedness with farsightedness
D
To review the anatomy of the human eye
Question 28 Explanation: 
The passage describes how the eye loses some of its functionality as a person ages and how corrective lenses do the work that the eye can no longer do for itself.
Question 29
Questions 26-31 are based on this passage.

The ability to see at a distance, in good light, does not diminish as a result of aging to the extent that other visual acuities do. Myopia, or nearsightedness, is more common to younger eyes, while presbyopia, or farsightedness, more commonly afflicts people as they age. The word presbyopia comes from Greek presbys, "old man," and opia, "eye," and names a condition in which, because the lens of the eye hardens slightly and loses elasticity as a person ages, one cannot as easily focus sharply on nearby objects. This condition leads to the familiar habit of lifting up one's glasses and bringing an object or reading material close to the face so that the eyes can more easily focus on it. The function of the lens is to accommodate different focal points so that sensory data can be correctly directed to the retina for interpretation into images by the brain. Corrective lenses, particularly bifocals or progressive lenses, adjust for the focal point aberration. In essence, they do the work that the eye can no longer do for itself.
 
Which detail is not in the passage?

A
Glasses help direct visual information into the retina.
B
A young person is more likely to have myopia than to be farsighted.
C
The lens of an older person's eye softens with age, making objects at certain distances become fuzzy and blurred.
D
As most people age, they do not struggle to see things at far distances as much as they struggle to see at short distances.
Question 29 Explanation: 
The passage states that the lens of the eye hardens, not softens.
Question 30
Questions 26-31 are based on this passage.

The ability to see at a distance, in good light, does not diminish as a result of aging to the extent that other visual acuities do. Myopia, or nearsightedness, is more common to younger eyes, while presbyopia, or farsightedness, more commonly afflicts people as they age. The word presbyopia comes from Greek presbys, "old man," and opia, "eye," and names a condition in which, because the lens of the eye hardens slightly and loses elasticity as a person ages, one cannot as easily focus sharply on nearby objects. This condition leads to the familiar habit of lifting up one's glasses and bringing an object or reading material close to the face so that the eyes can more easily focus on it. The function of the lens is to accommodate different focal points so that sensory data can be correctly directed to the retina for interpretation into images by the brain. Corrective lenses, particularly bifocals or progressive lenses, adjust for the focal point aberration. In essence, they do the work that the eye can no longer do for itself.
 
Which of the following is the best summary of the essay above?

A
Young people don't need to get glasses as often as old people because the lens of their eye still has its youthful elasticity.
B
Farsightedness is a condition that often results from naturally occurring aging processes, but it can be corrected with glasses.
C
Myopia can afflict young people, but presbyopia often afflicts old people. The name comes from the Greek words for "old man" and "eye." The condition can be corrected with bifocals.
D
Glasses are a medical invention that can help alleviate multiple issues with sight. Those with presbyopia need glasses to convey close-up information to their retina in a clear and understandable manner before it is interpreted by the brain.
Question 30 Explanation: 
The best summary includes the content that the passage focuses on without any details. The passage heavily focuses on farsightedness and the impact of glasses. The correct answer mentions these two topics with no superfluous information.
Question 31
Questions 26-31 are based on this passage.

The ability to see at a distance, in good light, does not diminish as a result of aging to the extent that other visual acuities do. Myopia, or nearsightedness, is more common to younger eyes, while presbyopia, or farsightedness, more commonly afflicts people as they age. The word presbyopia comes from Greek presbys, "old man," and opia, "eye," and names a condition in which, because the lens of the eye hardens slightly and loses elasticity as a person ages, one cannot as easily focus sharply on nearby objects. This condition leads to the familiar habit of lifting up one's glasses and bringing an object or reading material close to the face so that the eyes can more easily focus on it. The function of the lens is to accommodate different focal points so that sensory data can be correctly directed to the retina for interpretation into images by the brain. Corrective lenses, particularly bifocals or progressive lenses, adjust for the focal point aberration. In essence, they do the work that the eye can no longer do for itself.
 
What is the meaning of the word aberration?

A
injury to the retina or iris
B
Surprising or unexpected confounding factor
C
inability to properly correspond an image
D
Use of an outside tool to aid with a common biological function
Question 31 Explanation: 
An aberration is the inability of something (an eye, a telescope, a mirror, etc.) to fully and clearly reproduce an image or object the way it appears.
Question 32
Questions 32-38 are based on this passage.

Alfalfa thrives on land which contains lime, and gives poor results when this ingredient is deficient. The explanation is simple: there is a community of interest between the very low microscopic animal life, known as bacteria, and plant life, generally. In every ounce of soil there are millions of these living germs which have their allotted work to do, and they thrive best in soils containing lime. If one digs up a root of alfalfa (it need not be an old plant, the youngest plant will show the same peculiarity), and care is taken in exposing the root (perhaps the best method is the washing away of the surrounding earth by water), some small nodules attached to the fine, hair-like roots are easily distinguished with the naked eye. These nodules are the home of a teeming, microscopic, industrious population, who perform their allotted work with the silent, persistent energy so often displayed in nature.
 
Which of the following is an accurate paraphrasing of the underlined phrase?

A
Many people are intrigued by the relationship between bacteria and plant life.
B
Bacteria and alfalfa plants have a symbiotic relationship.
C
Bacteria in alfalfa is worth studying.
D
The gardening community is very invested in the bacteria found in alfalfa.
Question 32 Explanation: 
This question asks you to choose the sentence that has the closest meaning to the underlined phrase. Paraphrase the underlined portion in your own words, and then select the answer choice that best fits. “A community of interest” indicates that bacteria and alfalfa plants work together. This type of relationship can be described as symbiotic.
Question 33
Questions 32-38 are based on this passage.

Alfalfa thrives on land which contains lime, and gives poor results when this ingredient is deficient. The explanation is simple: there is a community of interest between the very low microscopic animal life, known as bacteria, and plant life, generally. In every ounce of soil there are millions of these living germs which have their allotted work to do, and they thrive best in soils containing lime. If one digs up a root of alfalfa (it need not be an old plant, the youngest plant will show the same peculiarity), and care is taken in exposing the root (perhaps the best method is the washing away of the surrounding earth by water), some small nodules attached to the fine, hair-like roots are easily distinguished with the naked eye. These nodules are the home of a teeming, microscopic, industrious population, who perform their allotted work with the silent, persistent energy so often displayed in nature.
 
In the context in which it appears, "naked" most nearly means which of the following?

A
Nude
B
Opaque
C
Unaided
D
Reflective
Question 33 Explanation: 
For this vocab-in-context question, go back to the passage and re-read the containing sentence. Consider what is meant by the word; usually a secondary meaning is used. Predict an answer and eliminate incorrect choices. Here, naked indicates that only the eye, and not a microscope, is necessary to see the nodules.
Question 34
Questions 32-38 are based on this passage.

Alfalfa thrives on land which contains lime, and gives poor results when this ingredient is deficient. The explanation is simple: there is a community of interest between the very low microscopic animal life, known as bacteria, and plant life, generally. In every ounce of soil there are millions of these living germs which have their allotted work to do, and they thrive best in soils containing lime. If one digs up a root of alfalfa (it need not be an old plant, the youngest plant will show the same peculiarity), and care is taken in exposing the root (perhaps the best method is the washing away of the surrounding earth by water), some small nodules attached to the fine, hair-like roots are easily distinguished with the naked eye. These nodules are the home of a teeming, microscopic, industrious population, who perform their allotted work with the silent, persistent energy so often displayed in nature.
 
Which of the following can NOT be inferred from the passage?

A
A 1-month-old alfalfa plant will have more bacteria than a 5-month-old plant.
B
A soil without lime will not grow bacteria.
C
Bacteria is located inside the root nodules.
D
A 3-month-old alfalfa plant will have more bacteria than a one-year-old plant.
Question 34 Explanation: 
This is a 'NOT' question, so we need to eliminate answer choices that are reasonable inferences based on details from the passage. Answer choices (A) and (D) can be inferred from the mention that young plants still display the same “peculiarity.” In addition, since answer choices (A) and (D) seem to suggest the same thing, namely that younger alfalfa plants will have more bacteria than older alfalfa plants, they cannot both be invalid inferences, so you should eliminate (A) and (D). Answer choice (C) can be eliminated because the author describes the nodules as the “home” of the bacteria. Finally, nothing in the passage allows us to infer that “a soil without lime will not grow bacteria”. The correct answer is (B).
Question 35
Questions 32-38 are based on this passage.

Alfalfa thrives on land which contains lime, and gives poor results when this ingredient is deficient. The explanation is simple: there is a community of interest between the very low microscopic animal life, known as bacteria, and plant life, generally. In every ounce of soil there are millions of these living germs which have their allotted work to do, and they thrive best in soils containing lime. If one digs up a root of alfalfa (it need not be an old plant, the youngest plant will show the same peculiarity), and care is taken in exposing the root (perhaps the best method is the washing away of the surrounding earth by water), some small nodules attached to the fine, hair-like roots are easily distinguished with the naked eye. These nodules are the home of a teeming, microscopic, industrious population, who perform their allotted work with the silent, persistent energy so often displayed in nature.
 
The author of the passage suggests which of the following about bacteria?

A
Bacteria feeds on lime.
B
Bacteria is visible to the human eye.
C
Bacteria is compact by nature.
D
Bacteria is a plant, not an animal.
Question 35 Explanation: 
For this inference question, look for statements based on facts explicitly stated in the passage. Eliminate choices that are out of scope, extreme, or that misuse details. Bacteria is microscopic, and can be described as compact.
Question 36
Questions 32-38 are based on this passage.

Alfalfa thrives on land which contains lime, and gives poor results when this ingredient is deficient. The explanation is simple: there is a community of interest between the very low microscopic animal life, known as bacteria, and plant life, generally. In every ounce of soil there are millions of these living germs which have their allotted work to do, and they thrive best in soils containing lime. If one digs up a root of alfalfa (it need not be an old plant, the youngest plant will show the same peculiarity), and care is taken in exposing the root (perhaps the best method is the washing away of the surrounding earth by water), some small nodules attached to the fine, hair-like roots are easily distinguished with the naked eye. These nodules are the home of a teeming, microscopic, industrious population, who perform their allotted work with the silent, persistent energy so often displayed in nature.
 
What is the main idea of the passage?

A
When attached to roots, bacteria is beneficial to plants and visible to the naked eye.
B
Plants need soil rich in lime to thrive.
C
In order to see clusters of bacteria, you have to be very careful in digging up a plant and exposing the roots.
D
Alfalfa plants thrive in soil containing lime due to the beneficial bacteria that often inhabits it.
Question 36 Explanation: 
The passage is a short explanation on how soil with lime (and thus, bacteria) is beneficial for alfalfa plants. The passage does not indicate that this is necessary for all plants. Focusing on just the content about roots is too narrow to be the main idea of the entire passage. Further, it states that nodules that contain bacteria are visible, not that the bacteria itself is visible.
Question 37
Questions 32-38 are based on this passage.

Alfalfa thrives on land which contains lime, and gives poor results when this ingredient is deficient. The explanation is simple: there is a community of interest between the very low microscopic animal life, known as bacteria, and plant life, generally. In every ounce of soil there are millions of these living germs which have their allotted work to do, and they thrive best in soils containing lime. If one digs up a root of alfalfa (it need not be an old plant, the youngest plant will show the same peculiarity), and care is taken in exposing the root (perhaps the best method is the washing away of the surrounding earth by water), some small nodules attached to the fine, hair-like roots are easily distinguished with the naked eye. These nodules are the home of a teeming, microscopic, industrious population, who perform their allotted work with the silent, persistent energy so often displayed in nature.
 
Which of the following details is not in the passage?

A
Bacteria can be found benefitting new alfalfa growth as well as older plants.
B
The reason that alfalfa plants like soil with lime is that it often contains a lot of beneficial bacteria.
C
Alfalfa roots will grow nodules that contain clusters of lime that help support growth.
D
Alfalfa will not grow well in soil with low amounts of lime.
Question 37 Explanation: 
The passage states that the nodules contain communities of bacteria, not lime. The other answers are directly stated in the passage.
Question 38
Questions 32-38 are based on this passage.

Alfalfa thrives on land which contains lime, and gives poor results when this ingredient is deficient. The explanation is simple: there is a community of interest between the very low microscopic animal life, known as bacteria, and plant life, generally. In every ounce of soil there are millions of these living germs which have their allotted work to do, and they thrive best in soils containing lime. If one digs up a root of alfalfa (it need not be an old plant, the youngest plant will show the same peculiarity), and care is taken in exposing the root (perhaps the best method is the washing away of the surrounding earth by water), some small nodules attached to the fine, hair-like roots are easily distinguished with the naked eye. These nodules are the home of a teeming, microscopic, industrious population, who perform their allotted work with the silent, persistent energy so often displayed in nature.
 
How does the author recommend investing the nodules on the roots?

A
Leaving the plant in the ground and flushing away soil with water
B
Uprooting the plant and then rinsing the roots with water
C
Uprooting the plant and examining the hair-like roots with a microscope
D
Growing the plant in a clear container to observe the thriving root system
Question 38 Explanation: 
The passage recommends washing away the surrounding earth with water, which implies the plant is still in the ground and the area around it should be flushed. It does not mention taking the plant out of the ground.
Question 39
Questions 39-44 are based on this passage.

Initially, scientists suspected a high dietary calcium intake of increasing the risk of kidney stones. A high intake of calcium, however, reduces the urinary excretion of oxalate, which is thought to lower the risk. As a result, the concept that a higher dietary calcium intake increases the risk of kidney stones, and the mechanism underlying their formation, required examination. Stanford researchers studied the relationship between dietary calcium intake and the risk of symptomatic kidney stones in a cohort of 35,119 men ranging in age from 40 to 75 years old who had no history of kidney stones. Dietary calcium was measured by means of a semi-quantitative food-frequency questionnaire in 1998. During four years of follow-up, 535 cases of kidney stones were documented by LifeWork analysts. After adjustment for age, dietary calcium intake was inversely associated with the risk of stones; in fact, a high calcium intake decreased the risk of symptomatic kidney stones. Surprisingly, intake of animal protein was directly associated with the risk of stone formation.
 
According to the passage, dietary calcium intake

A
was measured by means of a semi-quantitative medical examination.
B
was discovered to decrease the chance of symptomatic kidney stone formation, after adjustment for age.
C
increases the excretion of oxalate through the urinary tract.
D
is impossible to accurately measure.
Question 39 Explanation: 
According to the author, dietary calcium intake "was measured by means of a semi-quantitative food-frequency questionnaire," not "by means of a semi-quantitative medical examination." The correct answer is a conclusion of the study discussed in the passage. The fact that 'daily calcium intake decreases the excretion of oxalate through the urinary tract' is given as background information in the passage's second sentence.
Question 40
Questions 39-44 are based on this passage.

Initially, scientists suspected a high dietary calcium intake of increasing the risk of kidney stones. A high intake of calcium, however, reduces the urinary excretion of oxalate, which is thought to lower the risk. As a result, the concept that a higher dietary calcium intake increases the risk of kidney stones, and the mechanism underlying their formation, required examination. Stanford researchers studied the relationship between dietary calcium intake and the risk of symptomatic kidney stones in a cohort of 35,119 men ranging in age from 40 to 75 years old who had no history of kidney stones. Dietary calcium was measured by means of a semi-quantitative food-frequency questionnaire in 1998. During four years of follow-up, 535 cases of kidney stones were documented by LifeWork analysts. After adjustment for age, dietary calcium intake was inversely associated with the risk of stones; in fact, a high calcium intake decreased the risk of symptomatic kidney stones. Surprisingly, intake of animal protein was directly associated with the risk of stone formation.
 
The passage suggests that in conducting this medical study, researchers

A
drew few conclusions beforehand on the indeterminate outcome of their scientific research.
B
discovered associations they had not been looking for.
C
had little interest in calcium’s effect on organs other than the kidneys.
D
neglected researching how the intake of calcium can reduce urinary excretion of oxalate.
Question 40 Explanation: 
Among the correct inferences that can be drawn from this passage, one is that researchers discovered associations they hadn't been looking for, the cited example being "surprisingly, intake of animal protein was directly associated with the risk of stone formation."
Question 41
Questions 39-44 are based on this passage.

Initially, scientists suspected a high dietary calcium intake of increasing the risk of kidney stones. A high intake of calcium, however, reduces the urinary excretion of oxalate, which is thought to lower the risk. As a result, the concept that a higher dietary calcium intake increases the risk of kidney stones, and the mechanism underlying their formation, required examination. Stanford researchers studied the relationship between dietary calcium intake and the risk of symptomatic kidney stones in a cohort of 35,119 men ranging in age from 40 to 75 years old who had no history of kidney stones. Dietary calcium was measured by means of a semi-quantitative food-frequency questionnaire in 1998. During four years of follow-up, 535 cases of kidney stones were documented by LifeWork analysts. After adjustment for age, dietary calcium intake was inversely associated with the risk of stones; in fact, a high calcium intake decreased the risk of symptomatic kidney stones. Surprisingly, intake of animal protein was directly associated with the risk of stone formation.
 
What is the main focus of this passage?

A
How dietary calcium affects kidneys.
B
How kidneys function.
C
How kidney research is conducted.
D
How Stanford researchers perform studies.
Question 41 Explanation: 
The main idea of the passage focuses on dietary calcium and its relationship to the kidneys and the formation of kidney stones.
Question 42
Questions 39-44 are based on this passage.

Initially, scientists suspected a high dietary calcium intake of increasing the risk of kidney stones. A high intake of calcium, however, reduces the urinary excretion of oxalate, which is thought to lower the risk. As a result, the concept that a higher dietary calcium intake increases the risk of kidney stones, and the mechanism underlying their formation, required examination. Stanford researchers studied the relationship between dietary calcium intake and the risk of symptomatic kidney stones in a cohort of 35,119 men ranging in age from 40 to 75 years old who had no history of kidney stones. Dietary calcium was measured by means of a semi-quantitative food-frequency questionnaire in 1998. During four years of follow-up, 535 cases of kidney stones were documented by LifeWork analysts. After adjustment for age, dietary calcium intake was inversely associated with the risk of stones; in fact, a high calcium intake decreased the risk of symptomatic kidney stones. Surprisingly, intake of animal protein was directly associated with the risk of stone formation.
 
What is the meaning of the word "inversely" as used in the passage?

A
Directly
B
Reversed in position
C
Surprisingly
D
Indirectly
Question 42 Explanation: 
An inverse relationship or association means that the two data pieces reverse in position; as one increases, the other decreases.
Question 43
Questions 39-44 are based on this passage.

Initially, scientists suspected a high dietary calcium intake of increasing the risk of kidney stones. A high intake of calcium, however, reduces the urinary excretion of oxalate, which is thought to lower the risk. As a result, the concept that a higher dietary calcium intake increases the risk of kidney stones, and the mechanism underlying their formation, required examination. Stanford researchers studied the relationship between dietary calcium intake and the risk of symptomatic kidney stones in a cohort of 35,119 men ranging in age from 40 to 75 years old who had no history of kidney stones. Dietary calcium was measured by means of a semi-quantitative food-frequency questionnaire in 1998. During four years of follow-up, 535 cases of kidney stones were documented by LifeWork analysts. After adjustment for age, dietary calcium intake was inversely associated with the risk of stones; in fact, a high calcium intake decreased the risk of symptomatic kidney stones. Surprisingly, intake of animal protein was directly associated with the risk of stone formation.
 
Which of the following is the best summary of the passage?

A
Calcium reduces the amount of oxalate the body loses, which is correlated with a lower risk of kidney stones. Researchers studied over 35,000 men to discover that calcium intake is, in fact, a great preventative measure of kidney stones.
B
Scientists once thought that a lot of calcium would increase the risk of kidney stones, but actually, they were wrong. A 4-year-long study of middle- to late-aged men shows a connection between high calcium intake and a decrease in risk of kidney stones.
C
Although calcium has been shown in studies to decrease the risk of kidney stones, consumption of animal protein has been shown to increase that risk. This was discovered through a multi-year study of men between 40 and 75 years of age.
D
The risk of kidney stones is decreased by a high calcium intake, contrary to prior belief. A diet rich in calcium has been shown in a study to have an inverse relationship with the risk of kidney stones.
Question 43 Explanation: 
A summary should touch on all the focal points of a passage without bringing in any details. Mentioning the ages of men studied, the amount of study participants, or the length of the study are all details that do not need to be included when summarizing a passage of this size. Animal protein was only listed in the last sentence, so it is not a point the author focused on.
Question 44
Questions 39-44 are based on this passage.

Initially, scientists suspected a high dietary calcium intake of increasing the risk of kidney stones. A high intake of calcium, however, reduces the urinary excretion of oxalate, which is thought to lower the risk. As a result, the concept that a higher dietary calcium intake increases the risk of kidney stones, and the mechanism underlying their formation, required examination. Stanford researchers studied the relationship between dietary calcium intake and the risk of symptomatic kidney stones in a cohort of 35,119 men ranging in age from 40 to 75 years old who had no history of kidney stones. Dietary calcium was measured by means of a semi-quantitative food-frequency questionnaire in 1998. During four years of follow-up, 535 cases of kidney stones were documented by LifeWork analysts. After adjustment for age, dietary calcium intake was inversely associated with the risk of stones; in fact, a high calcium intake decreased the risk of symptomatic kidney stones. Surprisingly, intake of animal protein was directly associated with the risk of stone formation.
 
How did the researchers know the amount of calcium that study participants consumed?

A
The participants reported it themselves through answering questions
B
The researchers monitored their diets and lifestyles
C
The researchers calculated calcium intake based on the risk of, or occurrence of, kidney stones
D
The study participants were given calcium supplements of varying amounts
Question 44 Explanation: 
The passage states that data was collected with a "semi-quantitative food-frequency questionnaire," meaning that research participants answered questions about what they ate.
Question 45
Questions 45-50 are based on this passage.

Despite increasing enrollments of women in medical schools, feelings of isolation among women medical students persist. Women students still have to contend with the social stereotype of a male doctor. In addition, institutions themselves may unintentionally foster feelings of separateness. Comparatively few women are hired for faculty positions, thus offering women students few role models. The pervasive sexual humor of male doctors and students further intensifies women students' alienation. Alienation, in turn, negatively affects individual self-perception.

As women enter medical study in increasing numbers, they may feel less at odds with their peers and the teaching establishment. Institutional bias will, no doubt, also change in response to evolving societal values. However, we should not wait passively for gradual social processes to bring changes; schools must provide current students with support services designed to meet women's needs. In a recent study, 48 percent of the women questioned rated a student support group as the most important support service a school can provide.
 
The passage cites all of the following as causing psychological problems for women medical students EXCEPT

A
feelings of alienation from teachers and fellow students.
B
prevailing societal conceptions about doctors.
C
declining admissions of women to medical schools.
D
expressions of sexism by peers and superiors.
Question 45 Explanation: 
According to the first sentence, the enrollment of women in medical schools is increasing, not decreasing.
Question 46
Questions 23-27 are based on this passage.

Despite increasing enrollments of women in medical schools, feelings of isolation among women medical students persist. Women students still have to contend with the social stereotype of a male doctor. In addition, institutions themselves may unintentionally foster feelings of separateness. Comparatively few women are hired for faculty positions, thus offering women students few role models. The pervasive sexual humor of male doctors and students further intensifies women students' alienation. Alienation, in turn, negatively affects individual self-perception.

As women enter medical study in increasing numbers, they may feel less at odds with their peers and the teaching establishment. Institutional bias will, no doubt, also change in response to evolving societal values. However, we should not wait passively for gradual social processes to bring changes; schools must provide current students with support services designed to meet women's needs. In a recent study, 48 percent of the women questioned rated a student support group as the most important support service a school can provide.
 
The author of the passage is concerned that

A
medical schools practice widespread discrimination on the basis of sex.
B
feelings of isolation among women medical students are partly the result of social stereotypes.
C
some medical school policies are deliberately designed to make women students feel isolated.
D
social norms must change before institutional bias can decline.
Question 46 Explanation: 
The author's purpose is to show readers that although increasing numbers of women are enrolling in medical school, they still face disadvantages arising from societal issues.
Question 47
Questions 45-50 are based on this passage.

Despite increasing enrollments of women in medical schools, feelings of isolation among women medical students persist. Women students still have to contend with the social stereotype of a male doctor. In addition, institutions themselves may unintentionally foster feelings of separateness. Comparatively few women are hired for faculty positions, thus offering women students few role models. The pervasive sexual humor of male doctors and students further intensifies women students' alienation. Alienation, in turn, negatively affects individual self-perception.

As women enter medical study in increasing numbers, they may feel less at odds with their peers and the teaching establishment. Institutional bias will, no doubt, also change in response to evolving societal values. However, we should not wait passively for gradual social processes to bring changes; schools must provide current students with support services designed to meet women's needs. In a recent study, 48 percent of the women questioned rated a student support group as the most important support service a school can provide.
 
The author cites factual information in support of which of the following contentions?

A
Women students have more negative experiences in medical school than male students.
B
Medical schools are moving rapidly to eliminate the effects of sexual bias.
C
Many women are psychologically damaged by the feelings of alienation in medical school.
D
Many women medical students feel a need for officially sponsored support services.
Question 47 Explanation: 
The correct answer refers to the only hard data given, the 48 percent of women who reported that a student support group is "the most important support service a school can provide." The wrong choices not only lack factual support; they are points the author does not make at all.
Question 48
Questions 45-50 are based on this passage.

Despite increasing enrollments of women in medical schools, feelings of isolation among women medical students persist. Women students still have to contend with the social stereotype of a male doctor. In addition, institutions themselves may unintentionally foster feelings of separateness. Comparatively few women are hired for faculty positions, thus offering women students few role models. The pervasive sexual humor of male doctors and students further intensifies women students' alienation. Alienation, in turn, negatively affects individual self-perception.

As women enter medical study in increasing numbers, they may feel less at odds with their peers and the teaching establishment. Institutional bias will, no doubt, also change in response to evolving societal values. However, we should not wait passively for gradual social processes to bring changes; schools must provide current students with support services designed to meet women's needs. In a recent study, 48 percent of the women questioned rated a student support group as the most important support service a school can provide.
 
The passage suggests that which of the following would be likely to reduce the isolation felt by women medical students?

A
An increased proportion of women in medical schools.
B
A decrease in the number of women filling faculty positions in medical schools.
C
A decrease in support services available to women students.
D
A more complete segregation between men and women in medical schools.
Question 48 Explanation: 
This question asks us to identify initiatives or developments which would reduce the sense of isolation felt by female medical students. The correct answer is supported by the first sentence of paragraph 2. As women increasingly enter medical schools, they "may feel less at odds with their peers and the teaching establishment."
Question 49
Questions 45-50 are based on this passage.

Despite increasing enrollments of women in medical schools, feelings of isolation among women medical students persist. Women students still have to contend with the social stereotype of a male doctor. In addition, institutions themselves may unintentionally foster feelings of separateness. Comparatively few women are hired for faculty positions, thus offering women students few role models. The pervasive sexual humor of male doctors and students further intensifies women students' alienation. Alienation, in turn, negatively affects individual self-perception.

As women enter medical study in increasing numbers, they may feel less at odds with their peers and the teaching establishment. Institutional bias will, no doubt, also change in response to evolving societal values. However, we should not wait passively for gradual social processes to bring changes; schools must provide current students with support services designed to meet women's needs. In a recent study, 48 percent of the women questioned rated a student support group as the most important support service a school can provide.
 
In terms of its tone and form, the passage is most appropriately described as

A
an impassioned polemic
B
an indignant protest
C
a reasoned appeal
D
a detached summary
Question 49 Explanation: 
The question asks about both tone and content. The tone of the passage is neutral; the author summarizes facts, cites a statistic, and does not use charged or emotional diction. The content, however, is not disinterested; the author definitely advocates changes — medical schools should not "wait passively" for society to change but should do more to address the problems of "current students." The correct answer is the choice that best fits this combination of a quiet, persuasive tone and clear-cut advocacy.
Question 50
Questions 45-50 are based on this passage.

Despite increasing enrollments of women in medical schools, feelings of isolation among women medical students persist. Women students still have to contend with the social stereotype of a male doctor. In addition, institutions themselves may unintentionally foster feelings of separateness. Comparatively few women are hired for faculty positions, thus offering women students few role models. The pervasive sexual humor of male doctors and students further intensifies women students' alienation. Alienation, in turn, negatively affects individual self-perception.

As women enter medical study in increasing numbers, they may feel less at odds with their peers and the teaching establishment. Institutional bias will, no doubt, also change in response to evolving societal values. However, we should not wait passively for gradual social processes to bring changes; schools must provide current students with support services designed to meet women's needs. In a recent study, 48 percent of the women questioned rated a student support group as the most important support service a school can provide.
 
What is the meaning of the word "pervasive" as used in the text?

A
Offensive
B
Ubiquitous
C
Having the ability to persuade
D
Uncommon
Question 50 Explanation: 
Something is pervasive if it is ubiquitous—it is seemingly everywhere, it cannot be escaped or ignored.
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