HESI A2 Anatomy and Physiology Practice Test

Another great test prep resource is our free HESI A2 Anatomy and Physiology practice test. This practice test includes 40 multiple choice questions with answers and detailed explanations. You will need to know the basic anatomy and physiology of each of the major body systems. After trying our HESI Anatomy and Physiology practice questions you should have a very good idea of which body systems you still need to review.

Congratulations - you have completed . You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Which of the following is NOT a function of the digestive tract?

A
To use enzymes to break down food.
B
To perform gas exchange.
C
To remove waste from the body.
D
To use peristalsis to move food along.
Question 1 Explanation: 
The digestive tract performs all of the above functions except for performing gas exchange, which is a function of the respiratory system.
Question 2
The body, at all times, attempts to maintain homeostasis. The best definition of homeostasis is:

A
a process that maintains the stability of the human body's internal environment in response to changes in internal and external conditions.
B
a function via which the body breaks down glucose to use as energy.
C
a process that maintains the immune system’s defenses.
D
a process in which the body resists change to its genetic structure.
Question 2 Explanation: 
This is the best definition of homeostasis. ‘Homeo’ refers to a unified, or sameness, and ‘stasis’ refers to equilibrium.
Question 3
The endocrine system of the body is responsible for:

A
defense through the use of antibodies.
B
communication through the use of hormones.
C
metabolism through the use of enzymes.
D
blood flow through the use of the heart muscle.
Question 3 Explanation: 
The endocrine system of the body manufactures hormones, which stimulate cells. to perform certain actions. Hormones can be considered signaling molecules.
Question 4
Anatomical position shows the body in a(n) ______ position.

A
lateral
B
superior
C
anterior
D
posterior
Question 4 Explanation: 
In anatomical position, the body is in an anterior (forward-facing) position with palms facing anterior as well.
Question 5
Vitamin K is created in the:

A
Liver.
B
Lungs.
C
Intestinal tract.
D
Pancreas.
Question 5 Explanation: 
The intestinal tract contains bacteria that synthesize vitamin K that can be used throughout our body.
Question 6
The largest organ in the body is the _____.

A
Skin.
B
GI tract.
C
Femur.
D
Stomach.
Question 6 Explanation: 
The skin is considered an organ and is therefore the largest in the body.
Question 7
A medical scientist wants to study the parenchyma of the kidney. This scientist would correctly be known, most specifically, as a:

A
biologist.
B
doctor.
C
anatomist.
D
histologist.
Question 7 Explanation: 
Where biology focuses on life, in general, histology is the study of tissues. Because it is not clear whether the scientist has a degree, doctor may not be appropriate. An anatomist would be studying the structure of the body in general, and not specifically tissues of the kidney.
Question 8
What is Erythropoiesis?

A
Red blood cell formation
B
White blood cell formation
C
The destruction of red blood cells.
D
The destruction of white blood cells.
Question 8 Explanation: 
Blood cell formation is called Hemopoiesis. Erythropoiesis is the process which produces erythrocytes (red blood cells).
Question 9
In which part of the body is keratin NOT found?

A
Hair
B
Skin
C
Nails
D
Teeth
Question 9 Explanation: 
Keratin is a family of fibrous structural proteins. Keratin is the key structural component of hair, nails, and the outer layer of human skin.
Question 10
What is the relationship between sarcomeres and muscle cells?

A
Sarcomeres are muscle cells.
B
Sarcomeres contain muscle cells.
C
Muscle cells contain myofibrils, which in turn are made up of sarcomeres.
D
Muscle cells contain sarcomeres, which in turn are made up of myofibrils.
Question 10 Explanation: 
Muscle cells contain myofibrils, which are made up of sarcomeres.
Question 11
A person who has torn their vastus lateralis muscle will need which of the following?

A
An arm sling
B
A cane or crutches
C
Insulin
D
A neck brace
Question 11 Explanation: 
The vastus lateralis muscle is a voluntary muscle in the legs. It is a part of the quadriceps. This person will most likely need a cane or crutches to assist in walking.
Question 12
Muscles produce contraction due to the sliding action of:

A
filaments.
B
sarcomeres.
C
flexors.
D
neurons.
Question 12 Explanation: 
During muscle contraction, filaments slide together by using energy supplied by ATP.
Question 13
The medulla oblongata has what primary responsibility?

A
Balance.
B
Intellect.
C
Vital functions.
D
Sensory input.
Question 13 Explanation: 
The medulla oblongata is responsible for basic vital functions, including respiration and heart rate.
Question 14
Which of the following is true about simple reflexes?

A
They travel through the entire body.
B
They travel only through the spinal cord.
C
They travel only through the brain.
D
They do not travel and remain localized.
Question 14 Explanation: 
Simple reflexes, known also as spinal reflexes, travel through the spinal cord only, and do not reach the brain.
Question 15
What is the primary role of estrogen in the female reproductive system?

A
It initiates the preparation of the endometrium for pregnancy.
B
It triggers the release of the egg from the ovary.
C
It causes fertilization.
D
It triggers the production of breast milk.
Question 15 Explanation: 
The primary role of estrogen is to thicken the endometrium in preparation for pregnancy.
Question 16
What is the name of the structure that transfers urine from the kidneys to the bladder?

A
Urethra.
B
Tubules.
C
Ureters.
D
Nephron.
Question 16 Explanation: 
The ureters are the structures that allow urine to flow from the kidneys to the bladder.
Question 17
Humans can survive most easily without which of the following?

A
Pancreas.
B
Lungs.
C
Gallbladder.
D
Bladder.
Question 17 Explanation: 
The gallbladder’s function is to store bile, but the GI tract is more than capable of producing bile to digest fat without it. (However you must limit the amounts of fat you intake at a time).
Question 18
Which of the following is NOT a role of cortisol?

A
Reducing inflammation.
B
Raising the blood sugar level.
C
Inhibiting the release of histamine.
D
Controlling motor impulses.
Question 18 Explanation: 
The nervous system controls motor impulses. The other choices are functions of cortisol.
Question 19
How many pairs of spinal nerves are known to exit the spinal cord?

A
10.
B
12.
C
31.
D
42.
Question 19 Explanation: 
Thirty one pairs of spinal nerves exit the spinal cord.
Question 20
The spinal cord reaches from the base of the skull to the first or second lumbar vertebra. The base of the skull is also known as:

A
foramen magnum.
B
filaments.
C
cerebellum.
D
corpus callosum.
Question 20 Explanation: 
The foramen magnum is the name for the base of the skull. The cerebellum and corpus callosum are parts of the brain. Filaments are inside muscle cells.
Question 21
Cyclic adenosine monophosphate is a substance that performs which of the following?

A
Acts as part of the cell membrane
B
Acts as energy for the cell
C
Acts as a secondary messenger
D
Acts as a hormone
Question 21 Explanation: 
Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cyclic AMP) acts as a secondary messenger that remains at the cell surface. (It is made by adenylate cyclase).
Question 22
The neuron is composed of a/n ________, which transmits signals toward the cell body, and a/n _______, which transmits signals away from the cell body.

A
dendrite, axon
B
axon, dendrite
C
filament, axon
D
axon, filament
Question 22 Explanation: 
The dendrite transmits signals toward the cell body while axons transmit signals away from the cell body. Filaments are part of muscle cells, not nerve cells.
Question 23
The pectoralis major muscle is located in which general area?

A
The chest.
B
The back.
C
The feet.
D
The buttocks.
Question 23 Explanation: 
The pectoralis major muscle is located in the chest area.
Question 24
The soleus muscle is located in which general area?

A
The head.
B
The arms.
C
The chest.
D
The legs.
Question 24 Explanation: 
The soleus muscle is located in the lower half of each leg.
Question 25
Which of the following is responsible for differentiation, or specialization, of cells?

A
Platelets.
B
Hormones.
C
Neurons.
D
Brain cells.
Question 25 Explanation: 
Hormones are responsible for the differentiation of cells.
Question 26
Choose the statement that best describes the alimentary canal.

A
The alimentary canal consists of the large intestine, rectum, and anus and is the location of compaction of feces.
B
The alimentary canal consists of the small intestine, large intestine, rectum, and anus and includes some, but not all, of the digestive tract.
C
The alimentary canal consists of the mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, and anus.
D
The alimentary canal consists of the mouth, pharynx, esophagus, and stomach only.
Question 26 Explanation: 
The alimentary canal consists of the entire digestive tract, from mouth to anus.
Question 27
A woman’s body usually ovulates around what day in a normal 30-day cycle?

A
Day 5.
B
Day 10.
C
Day 14.
D
Day 22.
Question 27 Explanation: 
It is usually around day 14 in a normal 30 day cycle that ovulation occurs.
Question 28
Sperm, once created, are stored in an area of the male body called the ______.

A
Scrotal sac.
B
Epididymis.
C
Seminal vesicles.
D
Cowper’s glands.
Question 28 Explanation: 
Sperm are stored in the epididymis to mature.
Question 29
Which of these is the best analogy describing the function of the kidneys?

A
A waste treatment plant
B
A control center
C
A medical facility
D
A soldier training facility
Question 29 Explanation: 
The kidney recycles minerals and resources still needed in the body while also excreting waste products. As a result, it is most like a waste treatment plant.
Question 30
What is the most widely distributed type of sweat gland?

A
Apocrine
B
Endocrine
C
Eccrine
D
Submucosal
Question 30 Explanation: 
The eccrine sweat gland is the most widely distributed type of sweat gland.
Question 31
Michael is playing on the playground with Suzy and decides to climb the castle while Suzy stays on the ground. Michael’s position relative to Suzy is ________.

A
superior.
B
inferior.
C
anterior.
D
posterior.
Question 31 Explanation: 
Superior means “above”, which correctly describes Michael’s position. Inferior means “below”, while anterior means “front” and posterior means “back.”
Question 32
Moving the arm toward the body would be described as a _______ movement, rather than a ______ movement.

A
distal, proximal.
B
proximal, distal.
C
proximal, anterior.
D
anterior, superior.
Question 32 Explanation: 
This movement is described as a proximal movement, rather than the opposite, which is distal. Proximal can be thought of as ‘proximity’ and distal can be thought of as ‘distant’ to help remember their meanings.
Question 33
The orthopedic surgeon informs you that you have broken the end of your femur. What area is she describing?

A
Epiphysis.
B
Diaphysis.
C
Shaft.
D
Bone matrix.
Question 33 Explanation: 
The epiphysis is on each end of long bones like the femur.
Question 34
Which of the following is true of the axial skeleton?

A
The facial bones include four nasal bones.
B
The mandible and maxilla are the only moveable bones of the skull.
C
Ossicles are a part of the jaw bone.
D
The axial skeleton consists of a total of 28 bones of the skull.
Question 34 Explanation: 
This is the only true statement. Ossicles are part of the ear, the mandible is the only movable bone of the skull, and there are only two nasal bones.
Question 35
A patient of yours is diagnosed with emphysema. In emphysema, the alveoli have trouble exchanging gases between the atmosphere and the blood. It would be true to say that this patient has difficulty with what type of respiration?

A
Internal.
B
External.
C
Subliminal.
D
Encapsulating.
Question 35 Explanation: 
External respiration is the exchange of gases by the alveoli between the atmosphere and the blood.
Question 36
Deflections of the EKG represent which of the following?

A
The contraction of the heart.
B
The relaxation of the heart.
C
The electrical activity that precedes contraction and relaxation.
D
The physical movement that precedes contraction and relaxation.
Question 36 Explanation: 
Deflections and patterns of the EKG represent the electrical activity that precedes contraction and relaxation of the heart muscle.
Question 37
Follicle-stimulating hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, and luteinizing hormone are what type of hormones?

A
Tropic
B
Pituitary
C
Sexual
D
Adrenal
Question 37 Explanation: 
These types of hormones are known as tropic. Tropic hormones act on other endocrine glands.
Question 38
What is the purpose of the mastication of food?

A
To absorb proteins
B
To increase its surface area
C
To prevent digestion
D
To break it down to lessen the time it spends in the stomach
Question 38 Explanation: 
Increasing the food's surface area promotes easier digestion by letting enzymes get to every portion of it.
Question 39
What stimulates the interstitial cells of the testicles to produce testosterone?

A
Cowper’s gland.
B
LH (luteinizing hormone)
C
ICSH (interstitial cell-stimulating hormone)
D
Tropic hormones.
Question 39 Explanation: 
Luteinizing hormone stimulates the interstitial cells of the testicles to produce testosterone.
Question 40
Inhalation requires the contraction of what structure?

A
The lungs.
B
The lower respiratory tubules.
C
The diaphragm.
D
The upper respiratory tubules.
Question 40 Explanation: 
The diaphragm contracts upon inhalation.
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results
There are 40 questions to complete.
List
Return
Shaded items are complete.
12345
678910
1112131415
1617181920
2122232425
2627282930
3132333435
3637383940
End
Return